I guess then @MissMaggie you’ve understood my line of questioning and where I’m getting at!
OK, when copyrighted material is in private circulation, I have a no knowledge about it, therefore I have no business with it. I can’t be in violation. Like for example, Ben’s lessons. Except for those who pay for it, it is not available to common public. Common public cannot possibly violate copyright as they have no knowledge unless another violation happens from a distribution by those who have access to Ben’s materials.
But when copyrighted material is in public, I have knowledge of those materials but am I still expected to observe copyrights?? OK that’s fine too. It is the owner’s or the acquirer’s stuff. They should have the rights. Fair enough.
But here is where my issue…
I speak, I share my knowledge with somebody, I do things, I go to places etc etc. It is individual’s data - private or public. Now, in the same token of owner’s having copyright for their work, should there be not an implicit copyright for an individual’s data?? I spend time and money for all these things. Why is it allowed to be used by third parties??
When Ben’s using a computer/software package cannot transfer his material rights to the software company, how does my using a computer/software package can transfer the rights of my own individual data to a third party??